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SteveSund -> RE: D.C.'s Gun Ban Gets Day in Court (3/27/2008 7:40:09 PM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: 1dblthnk02 The plaintiff did not invoke the 2nd amendment; why should anyone else? The issue was not one concerning states’ rights, but rather one of proper implementation of the Constitution’s militia clause. The case dealt with militias. The Court was free to bring up an relevent part of the Constitution that concerned militias quote:
ORIGINAL: 1dblthnk02 I can back up anything that I claim, but you are going to have to be more specific. Which claims of mine are you asking about? This claim: quote:
It is prima facia a guarantee to states' rights for a state's militia. quote:
I fail to see what personal gun rights had to do with Duncan v. Louisiana The Supreme Court listed "the right to keep and bear arms" as one of "the personal rights guarantied and secured by the first eight Amendments to the Constitution." This was part of a discussion on the ratification process of the 14th Amendment. quote:
I don’t mind quoting the Supreme Court on this issue. What I want to avoid is an endless barrage of citations reflecting the personal thoughts and opinions of the Founders. Sometimes they can be helpful. According to the Supreme Court, "when we do have evidence that a particular law would have offended the Framers, we have not hesitated to invalidate it on that ground alone." Minneapolis Star & Tribune Co. v. Minnesota Com'r of Revenue, 460 U.S. 575, 584 (1983). quote:
That being said, the 2nd amendment is a limit on Congress in defense of states’ rights to a militia in order to thwart standing armies. It has been referred to as such in United States v. Miller, 307 U.S. 174 (1939): quote:
The Constitution, as originally adopted, granted to the Congress power --"To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions; To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress." With obvious purpose to assure the continuation and render possible the effectiveness of such forces, the declaration and guarantee of the Second Amendment were made. It must be interpreted and applied with that end in view. The Militia which the States were expected to maintain and train is set in contrast with Troops which they were forbidden to keep without the consent of Congress. The sentiment of the time strongly disfavored standing armies; the common view was that adequate defense of country and laws could be secured through the Militia -- civilians primarily, soldiers on occasion. Also: quote:
The Court cannot take judicial notice that a shotgun having a barrel less than 18 inches long has today any reasonable relation to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, and therefore cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees to the citizen the right to keep and bear such a weapon. Here we see that concerns over personal gun rights are subordinate to the “preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia.” The phrase “well regulated militia” is straight out of the 2nd amendment. The Miller Court never suggested that the possessor must be a member of a militia or the National Guard, but whether the arm has a "militia use." The arm in question, in the opinion of the court, had no military or militia use. Taken on it's face, citizens should be able to have the same arms as the military. Miller also references a Tennessee case which says the same thing and that citizen members of a militia were expected to provide their own arms and their own training. quote:
There has always been gun control. States are completely free to control the arms of the citizenry; there is nothing in the 2nd amendment to hinder them, nor Congress, as long as state’s militias are not affected in any way. In my opinion, from a historical standpoint, gun control is fine as long as it does unilaterally disarm all citizens of all arms in the future. Most of the gun control is a relatively thing. Prior to 1934, a 10 year old could order a belt fed machine gun through the mail. Up until 1968, there were little if any prohibitions on children purchasing arms. I agree that the 14th Amendment has never been used to apply the 2nd to the states. IMO, this is incorrect, but I am not on the Supreme Court. What are these state militias you refer to? The Perpich case I referenced (that never mentioned the 2nd Amendment) has said that state militias (the Reserves and the National Guard) are under the control of the Federal gov't whenever the federal gov't wants to assert control. They are distinguished from the unorganized militias, which consisted of every "able bodied male citizen."
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