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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/7/2009 11:57:04 AM
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Jhud
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I am several months late on this thread, but in answer to the primary question, 'why does God kill people in the Bible', I would say that God allows all physical death to exist because of the sin of Adam; everyone's death is attributable to this primary event. As to why some people die sooner than others, perhaps as the result of the direct command of God, I would say that this too ultimately results from that primary event; we are reminded again and again throughout history (which God has graciously recorded for us in Scripture) that sin leads to death - children die as result of their parents creating societies based on willful rebellion against God, and the entire society suffers, even those who didn't create the original circumstances of that rebellion. This is always true, even today. We can accept this as truth and seek through the advocacy of truth and our own obedience to alleviate the consequences of such rebellion, or we too will experience the same result.
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Jack I believe in Christianity as I believe that the sun has risen: not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else. - C.S. Lewis
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/7/2009 9:05:57 PM
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garyhicks
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quote:
ORIGINAL: bob97 Hi Gary...yes they were stranded there because of their lack of faith. God said they would never enter His rest. My point was God has no problem making a decision about who lives and who dies, regardless of how they die. God passes judgment based on His omniscience and divine providence . Bob Right, I know he is soverign and does what he will- but he is irrevocably linked to his nature, which is just and true. The issue I was thinking about is that some have pointed to the pagan practices of child sacrifices and attempted to bring the God of the Bible into the same category- saying he is no different seeing he did the same thing by ordering Israel to kill the innocent children when they went to war. I was just looking for a better answer than 'God just does what he wants to,' or 'whatever God does is right,' although those things are true- I wanted to be able to show that there was a difference between what is called just and what would be called unjust- and our God doesn't do unjust things.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/7/2009 9:31:15 PM
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olephatpastor
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we see living people, god sees light and dark spirits. light kills darkness
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/7/2009 9:58:32 PM
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bob97
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quote:
I was just looking for a better answer than 'God just does what he wants to,' or 'whatever God does is right,' although those things are true- I wanted to be able to show that there was a difference between what is called just and what would be called unjust- and our God doesn't do unjust things. Hi Gary...so are you saying that we, His creation should be the judge regarding what is just and unjust about how God operates? The reason this is a difficult issue is because I don't think God has disclosed His reasoning. Bob
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The LORD clears the road for me! The LORD is my high ridge, my stronghold, my deliverer!
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/8/2009 8:54:08 AM
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garyhicks
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quote:
ORIGINAL: bob97 quote:
I was just looking for a better answer than 'God just does what he wants to,' or 'whatever God does is right,' although those things are true- I wanted to be able to show that there was a difference between what is called just and what would be called unjust- and our God doesn't do unjust things. Hi Gary...so are you saying that we, His creation should be the judge regarding what is just and unjust about how God operates? The reason this is a difficult issue is because I don't think God has disclosed His reasoning. Bob No, we it would be impossible for humans to say that God was unjust in a given situation. Like Job, he justified God's actions whether he understood them or not - 'in all this Job sinned not with his lips nor charged God foolishly.' When he lost his children and posessions his wife said 'Do you still retain your integrity? Curse God and die.' What a foolish thing to say- as if cursing God and dying in that state would somehow be the right thing to do. Rather than committing herself to him that judgeth righteously, she placed her faith in her own unbelief. Job, however, retained his rightful place before God and justified his activites by saying 'What? shall we receive good at the hand of God and shall we not receive evil? Both Job and his wife were coming to different conclusions about the God they served and what he was doing. Job's wife's lost her integrity because she based her conclusion upon a very limited view of what kind of deeds a just God would do versus what an unjust God would do- but Job maintained his integrity by realizing that the God they served was just no matter what happened to them.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/8/2009 10:39:24 AM
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bob97
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Amen Gary...our first duty is trust and faith. If we have these two things nailed we have accomplished what God wants from us...to love Him completely, without doubt, understanding that He is in control of all things...not us. Bob
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The LORD clears the road for me! The LORD is my high ridge, my stronghold, my deliverer!
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/13/2009 5:26:27 AM
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lhtytlp
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Hey grayhicks, thanks for the comments anyway. The Bible said in Isaiah 55: 8-9, "For my thoughts are not your thoughts, neither are your ways my ways, declares the LORD. As the heavens are higher than the earth, so are my ways higher than your ways and my thoughts than your thoughts." The way that God handles things usually are different from what we thought, however, the Words said again in the New Testament, "God works it out for good for those who love Him." I mean His Purpose, His Plan would be the best. See the book of Job, sometimes we may wonder why it happened to a rightous man, a God-fearing man, however, through these trips, God truly see Job's faith. There could be lots of reasons why God kill people in the Bible, I believe that God is a God of discipline, from the time HE created the world, you would see He does things systematically. The Words also said that He is a gealous God, so whosoever do idol worshippers, they have gained their reward already.
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The Lord is my strength and song ....... I shall not die, but live, and declare the works of the LORD. Talk no more so exceeding proudly; let not arrogancy come out of your mouth: for the LORD is a God of knowledge, and by him actions are weighed.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/13/2009 5:29:20 AM
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lhtytlp
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Again, please also read Genesis 6: 5-8, the event of flood. See God has the same feelings we as human being, when people tend to do wickedness in the way that God couldn't take it anymore, He grieved. I mean, there are lots of instances in the Bible, God kill only because to maintain HIS integrity, name and righteousness. Thanks!
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The Lord is my strength and song ....... I shall not die, but live, and declare the works of the LORD. Talk no more so exceeding proudly; let not arrogancy come out of your mouth: for the LORD is a God of knowledge, and by him actions are weighed.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/13/2009 2:48:10 PM
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GHitch
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quote:
ORIGINAL: garyhicks quote:
Their destruction was the removal of a great terminal cancer from the earth Yes, children and animals were involved in these rituals! Hi- Ghitch: The question in my mind was never why God would destroy wicked people- after all he is going to resurrect and judge the entire human race on the last day- some to everlasting life and some to everlasting damnation. The question that perturbed me was with the children. I know you quote that young and old were doing wickedness and I believe that- but I was referring to the very young such as infants who were killed. There is another question however that people seem to quote very often about God judging America or wicked nations- but few have ever put their finger on any exact nation IN THE NEW TESTAMENT (outside of Jerusalem in 70 AD) that they could say without question that God destroyed. We have Jesus saying there will be wars and rumors of wars and that has happened ever since Jesus has said that- so I am thinking more along the lines of God judging everyone at the 'day of judgment' rather than saying God will do such and such to our nation or to another nation if they don't stop doing this or that. Which nations over the last 2000 years has God destroyed without question? Did God destroy the Roman Empire or were they destroyed from within? Was Germany destroyed for killing so many people during the holocaust, and if so, do you believe the citizens themselves were maybe were not even directly involved in what Hitler was doing were also killed by God? And if you answer yes, then how do you think God would judge American citizens for 'allowing' their government to kill innocents abroad- even though citizens who are against the unlawful killing can do hardly anything to stop them? Got answers? Sorry for being so late. Was busy on the science forums. A little knowledge of the history of WWII is useful here. Yes indeed, God helped the allies "destroy" Germany. You can find direct answers to prayers made all through the war that changed the course of the war and led ultimately to the defeat of the Nazis. See Reese Howels book. See also Derek Prince's booklet on fasting. In the one case God specifically instructed Howels to pray and have the student os the bible college pray that Hitler would deviate into Russia. Howels relates that God told him that by thus he would judge both the German army and the Russians. They prayed - in less than a week Hitler made the crucially wrong decision to invade Russia where about 1/3rd of his army were destroyed. Prince recounts his experience in the deserts of North Africa in the campaign against Rommel - one the greatest military minds of all time. The British army was at the time led by a general who drank too much and lacked discipline. Prince asked God how to pray because they all knew a huge battle was looming. He was directed to pray that God would put his own man in leadership there. In short the drunken general was replaced by Montgomery - a God fearing man who in very short time brought back discipline and thus morale to the troops. The battle of El Alamein ensued in the following days. After the battle Prince was sitting on his jeep waiting for radio news of the outcome and heard that the Allies had won a decisive victory. When he heard he says he also heard the Lord speak to him, "This is the results of your prayers". In any case 100s if not 1000s of such stories could be told accounting how God intervened to overthrow the Nazis in answers to prayers. I know of many more myself. Some rather astounding! Including Patton's asking an army chaplain to pray for the whether so his troops could pass unnoticed and the answer came in the form of 'unexpected' thick fog all over the region. All this to make sure Nazi Germany was destroyed. That's usually how God deals with nations - as I pointed out from Jer 18. But he does so through people. And as John Wesley once said, "God does nothing in this world except in answer to prayer". A lot of truth to that. As for children, well I already answered but apparently you didn't understand that I was already referring to very young children and up! As for new borns, well that's another question. War is hell. It always comes with more innocent victims than guilty ones. God is sovereign and knows the end from the beginning. Death is not the end. Nor is it the ultimate punishment. Some have posited that their deaths, so young, was actually a great mercy given them as to immediate admittance into heaven. I can understand why he would choose to take all these young ones and spare them a life of warfare and sufferings - which was the immediate future of all Israel in those regions. Without a doubt had they been allowed to live they would have become deadly enemies of Israel once having learned of the destruction of their parents etc. I don't have all the answers but I trust him. As Great Executive Magistrate of the universe He can do no wrong, no injustice, no evil. So whatever questions may remain we know he had perfect reasons. Ask him. As for quote:
"Was Germany destroyed for killing so many people during the holocaust, Certainly in part. But they also killed 10s of 1000s before it became a world war. The Nazis slaughtered as many as 100,000 handicapped, retarded etc. of their own people. Possibly worse, their evil doctrines led many more 10s of 1000s astray to the losing of their souls. quote:
...and if so, do you believe the citizens themselves were maybe were not even directly involved in what Hitler was doing were also killed by God?" Those are the misfortunes of all warfare. But it is too much of a generalization that you present here. Who was responsible for the Nazis coming to power? Who allowed them to go on persecuting and killing in the name of Darwinian evolutionary principles which underlied their "artificial selection" holocaust? Who gave them their power knowing what their doctrines implied? None of this was "done in a corner" but everywhere in public before the war. Many innocents die or suffer intensely in war. Whether a war be justified or not. Obviously Hitlers campaign ti inaugurate a 1000 year Reich by war was unjust and despicable. But death and dying are what war brings. There is no other way in a fallen world where there is a power of evil behind all of these things (Nazis etc.) that is intensely opposed to mankind and God. The devil is a murderer. quote:
"And if you answer yes, then how do you think God would judge American citizens for 'allowing' their government to kill innocents abroad- even though citizens who are against the unlawful killing can do hardly anything to stop them? " Your question is most understandable, yet you should much more be asking, "Why do men permit such things?" Not why God, but why we?! We humans are responsible. If the Canaanites etc. had not been such perverse, self-abusing, child abusing and "ultra violence" loving devils you can be sure there never would have been any such campaigns.
< Message edited by GHitch -- 7/13/2009 3:06:59 PM >
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"The success of Darwinism was accompanied by a decline in scientific integrity. ...To establish the continuity required by the theory, historical arguments are invoked even though historical evidence is lacking." -W. R. Thompson, PhD
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/13/2009 9:26:28 PM
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eschatologist
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quote:
ORIGINAL: godsend221 If God is so loving, why did he kill innocent people in the Old Testament? First of all there is no such thing as an innocent person, in God's eyes. "That every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." (Romans 3:19) "For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23) "The Lord looked down from heaven upon the childrfen of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God. They are all gone aside, they are altogether become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one." (Psalms 14:2-3) "And God saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. And it repented the Lord that He had made man on the earth, and it grieved Him at His heart." (Genisis 6:5-6) As far as why did God destroyed children women,etc. etc. I suppose your talking about what the Lord told King Saul in ISamuel 15:2-3, "Thus saith the Lord of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Isreal, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt. Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ass." Because they were evil people. and God didn't want ther evilness to infect His chosen.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/13/2009 11:20:26 PM
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facedown
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eschatologist quote:
First of all there is no such thing as an innocent person, in God's eyes...."That every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." (Romans 3:19)..."For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23) .....Because they were evil people. and God didn't want ther evilness to infect His chosen. i only point this out, because if you're going to use such an argument, it needs to be wholly re-structured. this is a stream of thought that i'm sure most "christians" would provide to such a question, but in the end, i find it somewhat lacking. let me see if i can break it down here: a) no one is innocent b) all are guilty c) god killed them so they wouldn't infect his chosen the problem with "c)" is that it seems to negate both "a" and "b".
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/14/2009 11:59:27 PM
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Redjasper
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They couldn't save themselves and didn't have anything to offer to God to make it right with Him. "Jesusless" times led to destruction, Jesus saves and He is life.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/15/2009 4:53:45 AM
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SovereignIsHe
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Redjasper They couldn't save themselves and didn't have anything to offer to God to make it right with Him. "Jesusless" times led to destruction, Jesus saves and He is life. Jesus, the same yesterday, today and forever?
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John Proverbs 12:10 A righteous man regardeth the life of his beast: but the tender mercies of the wicked are cruel.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/15/2009 4:56:09 AM
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SovereignIsHe
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quote:
ORIGINAL: facedown eschatologist quote:
First of all there is no such thing as an innocent person, in God's eyes...."That every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." (Romans 3:19)..."For all have sinned and come short of the glory of God." (Romans 3:23) .....Because they were evil people. and God didn't want ther evilness to infect His chosen. i only point this out, because if you're going to use such an argument, it needs to be wholly re-structured. this is a stream of thought that i'm sure most "christians" would provide to such a question, but in the end, i find it somewhat lacking. let me see if i can break it down here: a) no one is innocent b) all are guilty c) god killed them so they wouldn't infect his chosen the problem with "c)" is that it seems to negate both "a" and "b". Why did God command those didn't choose God to be put to the sword by Moses? What did God command that nothing be taken from sacked cities/nations?
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John Proverbs 12:10 A righteous man regardeth the life of his beast: but the tender mercies of the wicked are cruel.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/15/2009 1:56:21 PM
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Redjasper
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quote:
Jesus, the same yesterday, today and forever? That's why I put a " " around "Jesusless". Hope that explains it.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/16/2009 6:57:45 PM
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facedown
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SIH i don't read the entire bible as though it was a transcript or screen-play. i realize that's not a very sound answer, but it is what it is, and it may have much in common with your post #188
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/18/2009 2:03:58 AM
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SovereignIsHe
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Redjasper quote:
Jesus, the same yesterday, today and forever? That's why I put a " " around "Jesusless". Hope that explains it. Ok... So what does it mean?
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John Proverbs 12:10 A righteous man regardeth the life of his beast: but the tender mercies of the wicked are cruel.
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/18/2009 2:15:10 PM
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GHitch
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quote:
ORIGINAL: SovereignIsHe Ok... So what does it mean? Yesterday, today and forever refers to his character and essential Godhood. That never changes. "His mercy [goodness or loving-kindness] endures forever". As for red's "jesusless" times, there actually was no such time except in the material sense. Christ, as eternally existing, was always there, yet not in incarnated form that's all. Indeed all messianic Jews know that He was the "Rock that followed them" in the desert. (Some Rabbis actually teach that there was a huge physical rock that mysteriously followed them in their journeys!) It is incorrect to assume other peoples of those days could not "have anything to offer to God to make it right with Him", and thus all doomed to destruction. Abel made offerings to God and so did Cain. So offerings were there from the fall onwards. They were a means to show that one understood that only a life could suffice as a means of procuring pardon for crimes against God (sin). It was also their means of showing that they knew and had "faith" that a day would come when an ultimate sacrifice - the Lamb of God - would come and put an end to all need for any other blood sacrifice offerings. This was spoken to Adam and Eve after the fall when he told Eve that of her seed would come the one - Christ - who would crush the serpents head; and that this Seed's "heel" (could be taken as Christs human nature) would be wounded to accomplish this. So even in OT days and even among non Israelis, atonement was possible if one believed in the coming One and demonstrated repentance and sacrifice. We see that this was indeed the case with examples like Balaam, who made sacrifice to the one true God, though he was not of Israel at all. How else could he know this? Hope that helps.
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"The success of Darwinism was accompanied by a decline in scientific integrity. ...To establish the continuity required by the theory, historical arguments are invoked even though historical evidence is lacking." -W. R. Thompson, PhD
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/18/2009 4:22:37 PM
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schtumpy
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Jhud I am several months late on this thread, but in answer to the primary question, 'why does God kill people in the Bible', I would say that God allows all physical death to exist because of the sin of Adam; everyone's death is attributable to this primary event. As to why some people die sooner than others, perhaps as the result of the direct command of God, I would say that this too ultimately results from that primary event; we are reminded again and again throughout history (which God has graciously recorded for us in Scripture) that sin leads to death - children die as result of their parents creating societies based on willful rebellion against God, and the entire society suffers, even those who didn't create the original circumstances of that rebellion. This is always true, even today. We can accept this as truth and seek through the advocacy of truth and our own obedience to alleviate the consequences of such rebellion, or we too will experience the same result. (My emphasis). Of course, even if we DO "accept this as truth and seek through the advocacy snd our own obedience to alleviate the consequences of such rebellion" we may still, and often shall, experience the same result. God will still smite the faithful as well as the unfaithful. It's completely at His choosing.
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I deplore what you say but I'll defend to the death your right to say it. - attributed to Voltaire
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/18/2009 11:17:19 PM
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Jhud
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quote:
Of course, even if we DO "accept this as truth and seek through the advocacy snd our own obedience to alleviate the consequences of such rebellion" we may still, and often shall, experience the same result. God will still smite the faithful as well as the unfaithful. It's completely at His choosing. Actually, no, that isn't true. The result is always completely different. It is true we will all die, because that is the wage every man must pay for sin, but the faithful will ultimately experience grace and mercy, and the wicked will ultimately experience punishment and wrath. And God does not 'smite' the faithful.
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Jack I believe in Christianity as I believe that the sun has risen: not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else. - C.S. Lewis
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/18/2009 11:25:36 PM
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todd_t
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quote:
God will still smite the faithful as well as the unfaithful. It's completely at His choosing. According to this view, God sounds like a tyrant with manic-depression.
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Hail Cthulhu
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/19/2009 12:28:42 AM
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garyhicks
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quote:
ORIGINAL: GHitch quote:
ORIGINAL: garyhicks quote:
Their destruction was the removal of a great terminal cancer from the earth Yes, children and animals were involved in these rituals! Hi- Ghitch: The question in my mind was never why God would destroy wicked people- after all he is going to resurrect and judge the entire human race on the last day- some to everlasting life and some to everlasting damnation. The question that perturbed me was with the children. I know you quote that young and old were doing wickedness and I believe that- but I was referring to the very young such as infants who were killed. There is another question however that people seem to quote very often about God judging America or wicked nations- but few have ever put their finger on any exact nation IN THE NEW TESTAMENT (outside of Jerusalem in 70 AD) that they could say without question that God destroyed. We have Jesus saying there will be wars and rumors of wars and that has happened ever since Jesus has said that- so I am thinking more along the lines of God judging everyone at the 'day of judgment' rather than saying God will do such and such to our nation or to another nation if they don't stop doing this or that. Which nations over the last 2000 years has God destroyed without question? Did God destroy the Roman Empire or were they destroyed from within? Was Germany destroyed for killing so many people during the holocaust, and if so, do you believe the citizens themselves were maybe were not even directly involved in what Hitler was doing were also killed by God? And if you answer yes, then how do you think God would judge American citizens for 'allowing' their government to kill innocents abroad- even though citizens who are against the unlawful killing can do hardly anything to stop them? Got answers? Sorry for being so late. Was busy on the science forums. A little knowledge of the history of WWII is useful here. Yes indeed, God helped the allies "destroy" Germany. You can find direct answers to prayers made all through the war that changed the course of the war and led ultimately to the defeat of the Nazis. See Reese Howels book. See also Derek Prince's booklet on fasting. In the one case God specifically instructed Howels to pray and have the student os the bible college pray that Hitler would deviate into Russia. Howels relates that God told him that by thus he would judge both the German army and the Russians. They prayed - in less than a week Hitler made the crucially wrong decision to invade Russia where about 1/3rd of his army were destroyed. Prince recounts his experience in the deserts of North Africa in the campaign against Rommel - one the greatest military minds of all time. The British army was at the time led by a general who drank too much and lacked discipline. Prince asked God how to pray because they all knew a huge battle was looming. He was directed to pray that God would put his own man in leadership there. In short the drunken general was replaced by Montgomery - a God fearing man who in very short time brought back discipline and thus morale to the troops. The battle of El Alamein ensued in the following days. After the battle Prince was sitting on his jeep waiting for radio news of the outcome and heard that the Allies had won a decisive victory. When he heard he says he also heard the Lord speak to him, "This is the results of your prayers". In any case 100s if not 1000s of such stories could be told accounting how God intervened to overthrow the Nazis in answers to prayers. I know of many more myself. Some rather astounding! Including Patton's asking an army chaplain to pray for the whether so his troops could pass unnoticed and the answer came in the form of 'unexpected' thick fog all over the region. All this to make sure Nazi Germany was destroyed. That's usually how God deals with nations - as I pointed out from Jer 18. But he does so through people. And as John Wesley once said, "God does nothing in this world except in answer to prayer". A lot of truth to that. As for children, well I already answered but apparently you didn't understand that I was already referring to very young children and up! As for new borns, well that's another question. War is hell. It always comes with more innocent victims than guilty ones. God is sovereign and knows the end from the beginning. Death is not the end. Nor is it the ultimate punishment. Some have posited that their deaths, so young, was actually a great mercy given them as to immediate admittance into heaven. I can understand why he would choose to take all these young ones and spare them a life of warfare and sufferings - which was the immediate future of all Israel in those regions. Without a doubt had they been allowed to live they would have become deadly enemies of Israel once having learned of the destruction of their parents etc. I don't have all the answers but I trust him. As Great Executive Magistrate of the universe He can do no wrong, no injustice, no evil. So whatever questions may remain we know he had perfect reasons. Ask him. As for quote:
"Was Germany destroyed for killing so many people during the holocaust, Certainly in part. But they also killed 10s of 1000s before it became a world war. The Nazis slaughtered as many as 100,000 handicapped, retarded etc. of their own people. Possibly worse, their evil doctrines led many more 10s of 1000s astray to the losing of their souls. quote:
...and if so, do you believe the citizens themselves were maybe were not even directly involved in what Hitler was doing were also killed by God?" Those are the misfortunes of all warfare. But it is too much of a generalization that you present here. Who was responsible for the Nazis coming to power? Who allowed them to go on persecuting and killing in the name of Darwinian evolutionary principles which underlied their "artificial selection" holocaust? Who gave them their power knowing what their doctrines implied? None of this was "done in a corner" but everywhere in public before the war. Many innocents die or suffer intensely in war. Whether a war be justified or not. Obviously Hitlers campaign ti inaugurate a 1000 year Reich by war was unjust and despicable. But death and dying are what war brings. There is no other way in a fallen world where there is a power of evil behind all of these things (Nazis etc.) that is intensely opposed to mankind and God. The devil is a murderer. quote:
"And if you answer yes, then how do you think God would judge American citizens for 'allowing' their government to kill innocents abroad- even though citizens who are against the unlawful killing can do hardly anything to stop them? " Your question is most understandable, yet you should much more be asking, "Why do men permit such things?" Not why God, but why we?! We humans are responsible. If the Canaanites etc. had not been such perverse, self-abusing, child abusing and "ultra violence" loving devils you can be sure there never would have been any such campaigns. quote:
Hi GHitch- Thanks for your response. Sorry I am so late- I got on involved with another subject on a different board. You say we humans are responsible for what government is doing, yet it seems nothing can be done about their actions. The powers our own government are utilizing are satanic and wicked. Lets use the American Revolution and Britain as an example to compare how they responded to evil and whether or not that response was actually justified before God. This is a huge question, so I understand if you don't have the time to adress it fully, but when we speak of 'natural rights' or 'God given rights' such as are enumerated in the Constitution- I am hard pressed to find these things written in scripture, and in some cases it almost seems that the reverse is true. For example, the right to self defense. If Jesus said to turn the other cheek if a man smites you on the face, or if someone compells you to go a mile, then you go two. The common answer is that these are not issues of self defense as when your life is in danger- after all, the only thing that someone did to you was slap you on the face- no one would say you have the right to pull out your gun and kill him for that. But just because someone gave that reply does not mean it answers the question. Yeah, the example was not about self defense, but where in scripture is the right to self defense? I have read John Locke and his answers make a lot of sense at least to the carnal mind, but when they say these 'truths are self- evident' and that everyone has these 'inalienable rights' and then tie in the phrase that we were endowed with these by our Creator- it begs the question----where did God say anything about most of what is written in the Bill of rights? If we say, no search without a warrant, where was that written in scripture? If we say, no direct tax without apportionment, scripture and verse please? If we say 'a just war' please show me in scripture. If we say 'wars of agression' are wrong then where are 'defensive wars' right? I know Rom. 13 will inevitably come up, and that the higher powers do not bear the sword in vain. Please tell me how far that sword can go? If he actually is to execute wrath against him that doeth evil, then pray tell me what kinds of evil can he use this sword upon? Does he execute the homosexuals, the witches, and anyone who kindles sticks on the Sabbath day? Does he now have God on his side because some other nation does things different than we do? Don't we think the other people we are fighting against do not pray sometimes to the very same God, and use the very same scriptures to claim us as their enemy? If there is no scripture defining how the use of this sword is to be used, is it in the hands of men to use as they see fit? How convienient. If I don't like something you said- I'll just use my sword. Put yourself in the position, say of the president- in other words, your the man now. Your a Christian and your going to do it right. How do you know its God's will for you to give the go-ahead for men to go and kill other men who may be just as ignorant about what they are fighting against as the ones you send? And how would you know these 'enemies' are not just as deluded as we are about what is right and wrong? Do you now have God on your side because some other nation does things different than we do? Don't we realize that the other people we are fighting against do not sometimes pray to the very same God, and use the very same scriptures to claim you as their enemy? Did not God say that he was not the author of confusion? Of course I am applying these things to current wars and our current warmongers, but even in Nazi Germany there can be no excuse for them killing innocent people anymore than when we kill innocent people. Call it 'collateral damage' or what have you, how many people who were just as uninvolved with the war as we are were exterminated in a few seconds at Hiroshima, or Nagasaki? How would you like it as your sitting at your computer responding to a post that a foreign country drops a bomb on you and kills your whole family--or while your eating dinner---or while you are out buying food---or while you were washing your clothers. We won the war!!!! Yeah, that is only part of the story- look at all the blood on American's hands. If some country would have done that to us, think of how 'just' the war would be to do the same to them. I have wrote way too much to probably even respond to, and bear in mind when I use the phrases, 'how would YOU respond...' or 'how would YOU like it....' I am of course not directing this at you, but just using those as a figure of speech. I know the 'just war' theory came into existance with the 'aid' of humans adding what they thought was 'justifiable' and what was not, but again please show scriputure and verse in the New Testament in this dispensation of time. Blessings to you P.S. Just so you know a bit of where I am coming from- it seems to me the only valid use of the sword in Rom. 13 is for taking revenge on someone who has killed someone. I get this from Gen. 6 where it states 'He that sheddeth mans blood, by man shall his blood be shed.' And also in Rev. 'he that killeth with the sword must be killed with the sword.' If it is thus to be used, it would seem that almost all 'wars' would stop as most of this would be placed in an agressive and 'pre-emptive' type situation as is now so much savoured by our present leaders-
< Message edited by garyhicks -- 7/19/2009 12:46:26 AM >
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/19/2009 1:00:03 AM
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schtumpy
Posts: 904
Joined: 12/2/2008
Status: offline
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Jhud quote:
Of course, even if we DO "accept this as truth and seek through the advocacy snd our own obedience to alleviate the consequences of such rebellion" we may still, and often shall, experience the same result. God will still smite the faithful as well as the unfaithful. It's completely at His choosing. Actually, no, that isn't true. The result is always completely different. It is true we will all die, because that is the wage every man must pay for sin, but the faithful will ultimately experience grace and mercy, and the wicked will ultimately experience punishment and wrath. And God does not 'smite' the faithful. Maybe He doesn't smite the faithful, but I can vouchsafe that a stack of my patients and their parents feel fairly smited. Depends how you define smiting I suppose. But I think a two year old who has lost all four limbs and suffers brain damage because of a blood infection would probably define that as a pretty severe smiting. His parents have never once wavered in their faith though. No-one's arguing that the ultimate experience in the after-life will be very different for the faithful and the unfaithful. The OP - as I read it - is addressing more corporeal suffering and death. And when you said quote:
we are reminded again and again throughout history (which God has graciously recorded for us in Scripture) that sin leads to death - children die as result of their parents creating societies based on willful rebellion against God, and the entire society suffers, even those who didn't create the original circumstances of that rebellion. I took it that you too were referring to this life rather than the next. And that when you said quote:
accept this as truth and seek through the advocacy snd our own obedience to alleviate the consequences of such rebellion" we may still, and often shall, experience the same result. I got the impression that you implied we could mitigate some of the earthly suffering doled out in retribution for that Original Sin by being faithful. From my perspective, it appears as though the faithful and the unfaithful suffer fairly evenly. And that Godfearing communities seem to suffer his righteous wrath on a similar footing to those that are more secular.
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I deplore what you say but I'll defend to the death your right to say it. - attributed to Voltaire
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/19/2009 2:29:12 AM
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Jhud
Posts: 4478
Joined: 4/11/2005
From: Lake Wobegon
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quote:
Maybe He doesn't smite the faithful, but I can vouchsafe that a stack of my patients and their parents feel fairly smited. Depends how you define smiting I suppose. But I think a two year old who has lost all four limbs and suffers brain damage because of a blood infection would probably define that as a pretty severe smiting. His parents have never once wavered in their faith though. No-one's arguing that the ultimate experience in the after-life will be very different for the faithful and the unfaithful. The OP - as I read it - is addressing more corporeal suffering and death. And when you said I think the logical problem with your argument is that you are defining any life that isn't inherently heavenly as being 'smitten'; it is already established we aren't currently in heaven, and thus we are all going to get ill and die; this in and of itself is not a particular punishment aimed at a particular set of actions, but what is currently the human condition. Yes, we are cursed, but within that we can still suffer specific consequences for specific actions. This is rather elementary. quote:
I took it that you too were referring to this life rather than the next. I certainly was. Actually this life and the next. quote:
I got the impression that you implied we could mitigate some of the earthly suffering doled out in retribution for that Original Sin by being faithful. Well, again, this is rather obvious. Even if we simply consider the amount of suffering in this world that is the direct consequence of human choice, we know that this is true. If you add to that the amount of suffering that is the result of human indifference, then there is actually very little suffering in the world, beyond ill health and some natural disasters, that can't be tied in some way to how we treat each other. quote:
From my perspective, it appears as though the faithful and the unfaithful suffer fairly evenly. I am absolutely positive they don't suffer nearly the same. There may be some very wicked people who don't suffer directly as the consequence of there actions, but there are none for whom suffering isn't associated with their actions. And no one who lives a righteous life suffers the emptiness, meaninglessness, or bitterness that the wicked do. quote:
And that Godfearing communities seem to suffer his righteous wrath on a similar footing to those that are more secular. Well, the Godly often suffer in this world for their Godliness, much as Christ Himself did - but that is a choice.
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Jack I believe in Christianity as I believe that the sun has risen: not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else. - C.S. Lewis
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RE: Why did God kill people in the Bible? - 7/19/2009 4:54:06 AM
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schtumpy
Posts: 904
Joined: 12/2/2008
Status: offline
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I love this line - quote:
I am absolutely positive they don't suffer nearly the same. There may be some very wicked people who don't suffer directly as the consequence of there actions, but there are none for whom suffering isn't associated with their actions. So every bit of suffering delivered upon the wicked is a result of their wickedness, though some seem to get away with it - apart from that bitterness and loneliness stuff. But the suffering of the Godly has nothing to do with their Godliness. It's just divine justice for Original Sin. So you're arguing that the Godly and their communities suffer less retribution at the hands of God than do the Godless? Any data to back that up? And how would you define such righteous retribution? For example, I assume if a brothel burned down and all inside were killed, you would say this is a result of their wickedness. But when a church roof collapses and all inside are killed this is due to Original Sin. And anyway, it's probably a good thing because the faithful will be safely borne to the bosom of Abraham. I really love it.
_____________________________
I deplore what you say but I'll defend to the death your right to say it. - attributed to Voltaire
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