So, I don't know how you relate "context" of the two passages.
quote:
So, I don't know how you relate "context" of the two passages.
By covenant
Okay, but you are comparing apples to oranges by virtue of semantics.
That was the intent; the 2 judgments were totally opposite one another,
If we understand the OT ... the consummation (which was the only likeness in both of the examples) is what sealed the fate of both ... so to speak! One occurred before covenant was established… and the other after covenant was established and was therefore broken …
But the OP seemed to be relating that an unsaved someone seems to think that the Deut 28 rape as being as “a method condoned” in the OT …but the passage reads it to be by a mutual consent (simply based on the determination given to that violation.) = because it was found out = which means it was not established on the spot.
…It was either a misunderstanding of the passage or an intended push to discredit OT morality… its hard to tell. …The OP has already stated that the person in question is “not saved” = (No hearing)… therefore… The only way to squash the catch 22... is to “define” the opposites… otherwise one comes into agreement with the unsaved.
LG
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RE: Does Deuteronomy 22:28-29 condone rape? - 
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