Amen. @Oseas From Jesus’s own mouth. Hope all hear the truth you are telling.
God bless.
Peter
Eternal or everlasting means ‘for ever and ever’ forth.
Again, inherit ‘eternal life’ or ‘everlasting life’ Biblically means ‘inherit life for ever and ever forth’ without cease, and has nothing to do with ‘the beginning’.
As nothing to do with, ‘In the beginning was the Word, …’ (John1:1)
Same as in collaboration with, ‘In the beginning GOD created the Heaven and the earth’.
All creation or creature had their beginning and so did the Son of GOD, and GOD’s ‘only begotten’.
‘Who is the image of the invisible GOD, the firstborn of every creature. For by Him were all things created, that are in Heaven, and that are in earth, …’ (Colossians1:15&16)
The Son is not like the FATHER who’s without a beginning or scripturally mentioned, ‘In the beginning was GOD,…’
Besides these, those who want to claim the Son always existed without a beginning like the FATHER, quote the scripture.
Thank you and shalom in the name of Jesus Christ the Lord
The New Testament contains several passages that present the Son as pre-existent, eternal, and sharing the divine nature. Below are the principal texts typically cited when arguing that the Son has no beginning and existed eternally.
First are the texts describing the Word existing before creation.
John 1:1–3[1]
The phrase “in the beginning was” uses the Greek verb ἦν (ēn) in the imperfect tense, indicating continuous existence already in progress when the beginning occurred. The logic of verse 3 is important: if all created things came into being through Him, then the Word cannot belong to the category of created things.
John later identifies this Word with Jesus.
John 1:14[2]
Second are statements where Jesus himself claims existence prior to Abraham.
John 8:58[3]
The phrase “I am” (ἐγώ εἰμι) echoes the divine self-designation in ~Exodus 3:14, and the Jews’ reaction in the narrative (attempting to stone him) indicates they understood the statement as a claim to divine identity.
Third are texts that speak of the Son’s glory with the Father before the world existed.
John 17:5[4]
This statement presupposes conscious personal existence with the Father prior to creation.
Fourth are passages describing the Son as the creator and sustainer of all things.
Colossians 1:16–17[5]
The phrase “he is before all things” (αὐτός ἐστιν πρὸ πάντων) indicates priority of existence over creation.
Similarly:
Hebrews 1:2–3[6]
Here the Son is presented not merely as pre-existent but as the agent of creation itself.
Another text explicitly attributes eternal divine attributes to the Son.
Hebrews 13:8[7]
A passage in Revelation also describes Christ using divine titles connected with eternity.
Revelation 22:13[8]
These titles correspond to descriptions of YHWH in the Old Testament (for example ~Isaiah 44:6), implying eternal existence.
Finally, a prophetic text often applied to the Messiah speaks of origins reaching into eternity.
Micah 5:2[9]
The Hebrew phrase מִימֵי עוֹלָם (mimey ʿolam) literally means “from the days of eternity” or “from everlasting.”
Taken together, these passages form the primary scriptural basis used by those who argue that the Son existed eternally and without beginning, sharing divine existence with the Father prior to creation.
Shalom.
J.
Hi Johann
Greetings in Christ JESUS
Brother and sisters, Just for all of us to place ourselves in the time concerning Adam until today, according to Biblical Chronology, Abraham was born about 2008 years after Adam, or around 352 years after the flood that occurred at 1656 years after Adam, and after 75 years of his birth, in the year 2083 after Adam, GOD sought Abram in his country and said to him:-> Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father’s house, unto a land that I will shew thee-Genesis 12:1.
That said, when the Word-GOD the Father- was made flesh about 2000 years ago, and around 4000 years after Adam, and JESUS Himself claims His existence prior to Abraham" , so we can say this period of JESUS existence from Abraham until today, it is something as a tinny of eyes, if compared with the period prior Abraham, based in what JESUS said to the Father on John 17:5-7, as follow:-> 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.
7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee.
Alleluia!!!
The Word made flesh-JESUS- , said:-> Matthew 11:27KJV:->… No man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal Him.
“This is the bread that comes down from heaven, so that one may eat of it and not die. I am the living bread that came down from heaven. If anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever. And the bread that I will give for the life of the world is my flesh… As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so whoever feeds on me, he also will live because of me. This is the bread that came down from heaven, not as the fathers ate and died. Whoever feeds on this bread will live forever.” John 6:50-51, 57-58
“Then what if you were to see the Son of Man ascending to where he was before?” John 6:62
"Jesus said to them, ‘If God were your Father, you would love me, for I came FROM/OUT OF God (ego gar EK tou theou) and I am here. I came not of my own accord, but he sent me… Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.’ So the Jews said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?’ Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham came into being (prin Abraam genesthai), I am.’ So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.” John 8:42, 56-59
Here, Jesus says that he came out of (ek) God and was existing even before Abraham’s creation!
“do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?” John 10:36
“Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he had come FROM God and was going back to God (kai pros ton theon),” John 13:3
“for the Father himself loves you, because you have loved me and have believed that I came FROM God. I came FROM the Father and have come INTO THE WORLD, and now I am leaving the world and going to the Father (kai poreuomai pros ton theon).” John 16:27-28
The foregoing examples conclusively demonstrate that Jesus was emphatically affirming that he actually and personally existed in heaven even before he became a man. John himself makes the very same point in his prologue:
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (kai ho logos een pros ton theon), and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God (houtos een en arche pros ton theon); all things were made through him, and without him was not anything made that was made. The true light, which enlightens everyone, was coming into the world. He was in the world, and the world was made through him, yet the world did not know him. He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him… And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen HIS GLORY, glory as of the only Son FROM THE FATHER (para patros), full of grace and truth.” John 1:1-4, 10, 14
The Word, John says, was there even before the beginning of creation with God and as God! He even states that the Word created everything that has been made!
John uses the preposition pros which, when it is used with the accusative or direct object (as is the case here), refers to face to face relationship, to intimate discourse and fellowship. The late renowned Greek NT scholar A.T. Robertson wrote:
Though existing eternally with God the Logos was in perfect fellowship with God. Proß with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other. In 1 John 2:1 we have a like use of proß: “We have a Paraclete with the Father” (paraklhton ecomen proß ton patera). See proswpon proß proswpon (face to face, 1 Corinthians 13:12), a triple use of proß. There is a papyrus example of proß in this sense to gnwston thß proß allhlouß sunhqeiaß, “the knowledge of our intimacy with one another” (M.&M., Vocabulary) which answers the claim of Rendel Harris, Origin of Prologue, p. 8) that the use of proß here and in Mark 6:3 is a mere Aramaism. It is not a classic idiom, but this is Koin, not old Attic. In John 17:5 John has para soi the more common idiom. (Robertson’s Word Pictures of the New Testament; source)
The translators of the NET Bible concur with Robertson:
The preposition p??? (pros) implies not just proximity, but intimate personal relationship. M. Dods stated, “??? …means more than µet? or pa??, and is regularly employed in expressing the presence of one person with another” (“The Gospel of St. John,” The Expositor’s Greek Testament, 1:684). See also Mark 6:3, Matt 13:56, Mark 9:19, Gal 1:18, 2 John 12. (Source)
This is not the only time where John spoke of Christ being with (pros) or coming from the Father:
“That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon and touched with our hands, concerning the word of life – the life was made manifest, and we saw it, and testify to it, and proclaim to you THE ETERNAL LIFE which was with the Father (ten zoeen ten aionion een pros ton patera) and was made manifest to us – that which we have seen and heard we proclaim also to you, so that you may have fellowship with us; and our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son Jesus Christ.” 1 John 1:1-3
The readers should take note of the fact that John here identifies Jesus as the very Eternal Life which was with the Father and who had manifested himself to the disciples! And:
“My little children, I am writing this to you so that you may not sin; but if any one does sin, we have an advocate with the Father (parakleeton echomen pros ton patera), Jesus Christ the righteous; and he is the expiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.” 1 John 2:1-2
“HE (houtos) was in the beginning with God.”
J.
Then we also have this.
“Now, while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them a question, saying, “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?”
They said to him, “The son of David.”
He said to them, "How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet”’? If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?”
And no one was able to answer him a word, nor from that day did anyone dare to ask him any more questions.” Matthew 22:14-46
Just something to think about.
Peter
Correct, I do think about these things.
“Now, while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, ‘What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?’ They said to him, ‘The son of David.’ He said to them, ‘How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, “The Lord said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet”?’ And no one was able to answer him a word…”
Jesus is quoting Psalm 110:1, which in the Hebrew reads:
“The LORD says to my Lord: Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
In the Septuagint, Psalm 110:1 reads:
Κύριος τῷ κυρίῳ μου· κάθου ἐκ δεξιῶν μου, ἕως ἀνθρώπους θῶ τοὺς ἐχθρούς σου ὑποπόδιον τῶν ποδῶν σου.
“The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.”
Κύριος (Kyrios) is used to translate YHWH in the LXX.
κύριος μου (kyrios mou) = “my Lord,” referring to someone greater than David.
Notice that in the LXX, just like in the Hebrew, the one David calls “Lord” is someone above him, someone whom David recognizes as sovereign or exalted, not merely his descendant.
Jesus uses this Psalm to demonstrate:
Messiah’s superiority to David -The Pharisees acknowledged the Messiah as the “Son of David,” a descendant. But David calls Him Lord, implying the Messiah is greater than David, not merely a human heir.
The Messiah’s divine authority and pre-existence – The use of “Lord” (Kyrios) in Psalm 110:1 implies sovereign authority, which matches John 1:1–3 and other pre-existence texts: the Messiah is not just a human king but the eternal Word.
Scriptural proof of Jesus’ identity – By quoting the LXX version of the Psalms, Jesus points to the Old Testament as confirming His divine status and the impossibility of understanding the Messiah purely in human terms.
The Pharisees could not answer because they were expecting a purely human Messiah, but the Scriptures (Psalm 110) point to a figure who already reigns in heaven and is David’s Lord, i.e., the pre-existent Christ.
Psalm 110:1 in the LXX affirms the Lordship of the Messiah before His incarnation.
Jesus’ question implicitly points to His eternal existence, because only someone who is greater than David, who is enthroned at God’s right hand, could be both David’s Lord and his descendant.
In other words, the LXX text itself preserves a witness to Christ’s pre-existence centuries before He came in the flesh.
Hence…
Psalm 110:1 (LXX): “The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand…”
Jesus’ point: The Messiah is not merely David’s son but his Lord, implying eternal pre-existence and divine authority.
Implication: The Son of God existed before Abraham, before David, and is sovereign over all creation, fully aligned with John 1:1–3, John 17:5, Colossians 1:16–17.
The Pharisees’ silence shows they could not reconcile a purely human Messiah with the LXX’s testimony of His exalted status.
J.