There are some folks who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week. The Messiah said that He would be in the “heart of the earth” for 3 days and 3 nights (Matthew 12:40). Of those who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, there are some who think that the “heart of the earth” mentioned in the verse is referring to the tomb. However, a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved with the Messiah’s time in the tomb. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who try to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language. And that is the only issue of this topic, i.e., the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred. I wonder if anyone who may fall in the above group of believers might provide actual examples/instances from the period to support the belief of commonality.
Isn’t time counted differently though? A new day for a Jewish person begins in the evening, not the morning. That is why a fast starts in the evening and ends the following evening as opposed to starting it when you wake.
I don’t see your point with regard to this topic. Perhaps you might elaborate.
Greetings
if I may
I guess you are trying to explain the timeline of the crucifixion
understand scriptures’ is to compare scripture with scriptures to get the answer you seek a figure of speech of course, if look at 1 Corinthians 2:13
We also speak about things, not in the words that man’s wisdom teaches but which the Holy Ghost teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
the timeline of the crucifixion, try to use this as a model, look back in history, and as said, compare scripture with scriptures
the model
First Hebrew Palm Sunday
Exodus 12:3
Speak to all the congregation of Israel, saying: 'On the tenth day of this month of Aviv
(the 10th Nisan) every man shall take for himself a lamb, according to his father’s house, a lamb for a household.
Exodus 12:6
Now you shall keep it until the fourteenth day of the same month.
Then the whole assembly of the congregation of Israel shall kill it at twilight.
Meaning and God the Father carried Christ the Lamb of God to his house at midnight
This month shall be unto you the beginning of months: it shall be the first month of Aviv (the 10th Nisan) of the year for you.
Speak ye unto all the congregation of Israel, saying, In the tenth day of this month they shall take to them every man a lamb, according to the house of their fathers, a lamb for a house:
(Ex 12:2-3)
And he cometh the third time, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: it is enough, the hour has come; behold, the Son of man is betrayed into the hands of sinners. (Mark 14:41)
Now from the sixth hour, there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour.
And about the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?
That is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
(Matthew 27:45-46)
**calculation **
The sixth hour - 12:00 noon - the ninth hour - 3:00 PM
Christ the Lamb of God was slain on Passover in month of March (Nisan) the ninth hour - 3:00 PM
now if I may, understand the Feast of Hebrew tradition, not the Gregorian calendar, but the Hebrew calendar
2 Timothy 2: 15
I hope this may help
I am new here
OneIsTheWord,
re: “I guess you are trying to explain the timeline of the crucifixion”
I’m afraid your guess is incorrect.
The only issue of this topic is the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred as is stated in the OP.
Hi,
The Bible is clear. Jesus was in the tomb before the sun went down on the day before Sabbath.
Mark 15:34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? KJV
Sundown was the start of the next day.
Jesus died at approximately 3:00 PM on the sixth day of the week.
Since a person could do no work on the Sabbath, they had to get Jesus in the tomb and have it sealed by 6:00 PM.
We also know Jesus arose. on the first day of the week.
Mark 16:1-2 And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.
And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun. KJV
The way the seeming time contradiction was explained to me is as such.
Any part of a day is considered a whole day in the Jewish community at that time. Keep that in mind.
So Jesus was placed in the tomb Friday afternoon.
So Friday is counted as a day.
He remained in the tomb all of Saturday, the Sabbath.
So that is the second day.
As soon as the time hit 6:00 AM Jesus can leave the tomb and it counts as a day.
There is our third day.
I understand that it is not a strict 72 hours.
But Jesus was not speaking in mathematical terms when He said “three days and three nights.”
He was speaking colloquially using everyday speech.
That is how Jesus meets His prophecy of the crucifix and resurrection.
Blessings
Joe,
Your comments deal with issues for a different topic. Perhaps you might start one.
I think @Joe addressed your question directly. He said:
You proposed:
So @Joe responds and you say?
That’s not only rude, it’s wrong. I was going to comment here (beyond this) but after reading your response, nah.
MrE,
The sole issue of the topic is to show examples of where it was forecast that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could be. Joe didn’t provide any examples.
Rstrats
So, are you asking for discussion on the phrase “in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights”? Are you suggesting that you think that means something else than what is most commonly thought of as being “in the tomb”? If so, I think you may be on to something here.
KPuff,
re: "So, are you asking for discussion on the phrase ‘in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights’”?
No. The “heart of the earth” being the tomb is a given for this topic. And the only discussion that would be appropriate would be with regard to whether or not any examples provided were actually examples.
re: “Are you suggesting that you think that means something else than what is most commonly thought of as being ‘in the tomb’? If so, I think you may be on to something here.”
No. But that might be an interesting topic to explore. Maybe you could start one.
rstrats
I’m just thinking outside the colloquial box a little here, but in the Matthew passage alluded to:
But He answered and said to them,
"An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah. For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. The men of Nineveh will rise up in the judgment with this generation and condemn it, because they repented at the preaching of Jonah; and indeed a greater than Jonah is here ”. Matthew 12:39-41 (NKJV)
Now, in the “sign” of the prophet Jonah, Jonah was not “dead” for three days and three nights. In what state can we say Johan was in for three days and three nights?
BTW, I think Jesus used the precise wording of the story in Jonah 1:17 for a reason: “Now the LORD had prepared a great fish to swallow Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights.” The usage of the phrase “three days and three nights” is related to the creation story “God called the light Day, and the darkness He called Night. So the evening and the morning were the first day”. Genesis 1:5 (NKJV) so we would understand that He would be “in the heart of the earth” for three alternating periods of light, each followed by a period of darkness. Could it be that Jesus never intended us to understand the phrase “in the heart of the earth” to equate to being “in the tomb”?
KPuff,
When I suggested starting a new topic, I didn’t mean to start it in this one.
Got it. Sorry. I didn’t think it was a different topic. I stand corrected.
KPuff,
OK, no problem.
BTW, do you now see how it is?
I think that what you were looking to discuss, was not at all clear from your OP. It was further confused by the title you gave to the thread-- asking the question “Common figure of speech?”
Maybe you should reconsider how you framed things rather than being so critical of everyone who attempts to communicate with you,
rstats. Sorry, maybe I’m dense, but I’m not sure what “it” is in your question “do you see how it is”. Sorry.
Hi,
rstrats, it seems like you are changing the reason for the OP because you are not getting the response you wanted.
“that is the only issue of this topic, i.e., the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.” Quote from rstrats
You also called into question how a sixth day crucifixion/first day resurrection is possible.
I provided the answer I was given for this.
Jesus was not speaking about a literal 72 hours.
And He did not say it that way.
Remember there were no actual clocks.
So sundown marked the day change.
That can be seen in Genesis 1.
Example:
Genesis 1:5 And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day. KJV
Notice the “evening and the morning” referring to a day change.
Jesus did not phrase His crucifixion/resurrection that way.
Remember also that society operated on a geocentric paradym.
The correct paradym is if course heliocentric.
Jesus did not correct this error either.
So Jesus was not there to correct any error.
He wasn’t there to change their paradym.
He was not speaking in strict mathematical terms.
He is using common language to explain how long the crucifix/resurrection will be.
If we are all wrong on this, please explain what you are wanting us to talk about.
I do believe you could do a better job with this.
Blessings
He was crucified the day before the day of preparation aka Thursday and taken off the cross at sundown… Was in the tomb Thursday night, Friday, Saturday night and until early hours of Sunday.
Thurs 6pm to Fri 6pm sundown = one night
Fri 6 pm to Sat 6 pm =one night
Sat 6pm to Sunday 6 am = one night.
As we have no idea about happenings of Thurs, Fri, Sat night we don’t know just how long GOD allowed his body to lie cold and dead but we do know sometime on Sunday morning - the first day of the week he was met by Mary as a live body.
Logically sometime in those days and nights he must have been raised as a spirit to travel inside Earth to tell the imprisoned First Gang of Fallen Angels that Satan’s plan had failed and they would have to stay another 3,000 years in their prison until ‘perhaps’ being loosed along with Satan and his Second Gang to have a little season after the Millennium.
re: “rstrats, it seems like you are changing the reason for the OP because you are not getting the response you wanted.
‘that is the only issue of this topic, i.e., the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.’ Quote from rstrats”
I don’t know to what change you’re referring because that is the only reason for this topic.
re: “You also called into question how a sixth day crucifixion/first day resurrection is possible.”
This topic is directed to anyone who believes the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with a 1st day of the week resurrection and who also believes that the “heart of the earth” refers to the tomb and tries to explain the lack of an actual 3rd night time - which would be the case with that timeline - and who tries to explain the lack by saying that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech or colloquial language of the period. I am simply asking if they might provide example to support the idea of commonality.
The part about the lack of a 3rd night time is not a separate question but merely giving the reason for asking for examples to support the idea of commonality.