Did Mary have other children? Here's what the Bible actually says

Did Mary have other children? Here's what the Bible actually says

Though some traditions teach Mary remained a lifelong virgin, Scripture clearly names four of Jesus’ brothers and refers to sisters, indicating He was not an only child. The idea of step-siblings isn’t supported by the Bible either—Mary and Joseph appear to have had a normal marriage after Jesus’ birth.

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We all know Jesus was born to Mary and Joseph. But was He their only child? The short answer: no. According to Scripture, Jesus had brothers and sisters.

“Isn’t this the carpenter? Isn’t this Mary’s son and the brother of James, Joseph, Judas, and Simon? Aren’t his sisters here with us?” Mark 6:3

That’s 4 named brothers and some unnamed sisters (plural = at least 2).

Some traditions, especially Roman Catholicism, teach the Perpetual Virginity of Mary… that she remained a virgin for life. But there’s actually no scriptural basis for this.

Step-siblings from Joseph’s prior marriage? Again, no evidence in the Bible. Scripture presents Mary and Joseph as a normal married couple after Jesus’ birth.

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Ah yes, the old “Perpetual Virginity of Mary” claim… cue the incense and cue the theological facepalm.

Let’s cut through centuries of sentimental fog with a sword forged in Scripture. You want to know if Mary had other children? The Bible doesn’t whisper it… it spells it out like a roll call in Nazareth.

Mark 6:3 isn’t cryptic, it’s crystal: “Isn’t this the carpenter? Isn’t this Mary’s son and the brother of James, Joseph, Judas, and Simon? Aren’t his sisters here with us?” That’s four named brothers, plus sisters… plural. Unless we’re playing verbal gymnastics with the Greek word for “brother” (adelphos) and pretending it secretly means “distant cousin from a second uncle’s side,” the text means exactly what it says. Jesus had siblings. Actual, biological, younger siblings.

The Catholic fallback is that these were “step-siblings” from a previous marriage of Joseph. Cute. Show me chapter and verse. You won’t. Not in Matthew. Not in Luke. Not even buried in Leviticus somewhere. Scripture is silent on that theory because it’s a tradition, not a teaching. And tradition, when it contradicts the Word, is just noise dressed in robes.

Matthew 1:24–25 is the nail in the theological coffin: “Joseph took Mary as his wife, but had no union with her until she gave birth to a son.” That little word “until”? It’s doing a whole lot of heavy lifting. Unless “until” means “forever” now, the implication is obvious… normal marital relations followed after Jesus’ birth. Holy does not mean sterile.

And for the cherry on top? Acts 1:14. After the resurrection, “Mary the mother of Jesus, and with His brothers” are in the upper room. Still present. Still real. Still family.

The perpetual virginity doctrine isn’t about preserving purity… it’s about elevating Mary to something Scripture never does: a semi-divine status that ends up eclipsing the very Son she bore. That’s not honor—that’s idolatry by tradition.

Mary was blessed, chosen, and faithful… but she was also a wife, a mother of more than one child, and a follower of her firstborn Son, not the eternal virgin queen of heaven.

Let the Word speak louder than tradition.

—Sincere Seeker. Scripturally savage. Here for the Truth.

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While I love you @SincereSeeker as a brother, I have to correct you on some matters.
I was busy with exams, now im free brother.

You talked about Mark 6:3
“Isn’t this the carpenter? Isn’t this Mary’s son and the brother of James, Joseph, Judas, and Simon? Aren’t his sisters here with us?”
and inisit that adelphos must mean biological siblings but the scriptures proves that adelphos isnt so narrow. Some proofs i can give is
Gen 14:14 (LXX) calls Lot Abraham’s “adelphos” yet Lot was his nephew as in Gen 11:27.
1 Chronicles 23:22, the daughters of Eleazar marry their brethren (adelphoi in the LXX) meaning cousings. Even in NT “adelphos” describes non-siblings:
Jesus called His disciples “brothers” and Paul refers to all believers are brothers. Context, not modern english assumptions, determines meaning.

Look at the context:
In Mark 6:3, the crowd identifies Jesus as “Mary’s son” but never calls James, Joseph, Judas or Simon, her sons, only “brothers” of Jesus. Scripture distinguishes carefully.
See John 19:25, reveals “Mary the wife of Clopas” at the cross.
Matt 27:56 names her as the mother of James and Joseph. These are the same James and Joseph from Mark 6:3, sons of another Mary, not the Virgin Mary. Judas and Simon are similarly never tied to Mary biologically in Scripture..

The Sisters? Unnamed, undefined, and possibly extended kin or village associates, as “adelphos” allows.

The Step-Sibling strawman
I feel its more of mocking, but I will explain it.
You mock the idea of Joseph’s prior marriage, but im not arguing that- “Scripture doesnt mention it, so I wont either”
Consider the text:
You assumed it, but assumption is not exegesis.
Psalms 69:8, a messianic prophecy applied to Jesus says “I am a stranger to my brothers, an alien to my mother’s sons.”
If Mary had other sons, why does this prophecy not apply literally?
Scripture aligns with Mary having no other children.
Matt 1:25 and “until”
You lean heavily on Matt 1:25 as “Joseph took Mary as his wife, but had no union with her UNTIL she gave birth to a son”.
You claim that “UNTIL” implies later relations.
But here are instances where scripture uses “until” (Greek: heos) differently
In 2 Sam 6:23:
“Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death.”
Did Michal have children after her death? No.
Matt 28:20:
Jesus says, “I am with you always, until the end of the age.”
Will Jesus leave you after the end of age? No

Until denotes a point in time, not a reversal afterward. Matt 1:25 emphasizes Joseph’s abstinence before Jesus’ birth affirming the virgin birth in Isa 7:14.
It says nothing about what followed. Your implication is eisegesis- reading into the text what isn’t there.

Acts 1:14 and Context
You point to Acts 1:14 as “Mary the mother of Jesus, and with His brothers.”
Again brothers (adelphoi) doesnt prove biological siblings. The same verse lists apostles, women and others in the upper room. Are they all Mary’s children too? No. The “brothers” are likely the same non-sibling kin or disciples from Mark 6:3 consistent with the Scripture flexible use of adelphos. Its what we call as “forcing” a modern nuclear family into a first century Jewish context.

*Your argument assumes Mary’s other children to debunk her perpetual virginity but Scripture never calls her the mother of anyone but Jesus. Luke 1:31-35 declares her unique role: “You will conceive and bear a son… the Son of the Most High.” Her fiat, “Let it be to me according to your word” (Luke 1:38), aligns her wholly with God’s plan. Ezekiel 44:2, a prophetic type, speaks of a gate through which only the Lord passes, remaining shut afterward. Applied to Mary. this underscores her singular dedication to bearing the Messiah. Why would Scripture so careful to affirm her virginity before Jesus’ birth be silent on other children if they existed? Silence is there brother @SincereSeeker
To help you on this matter:
I will raise 7 questions.

  1. Cite a verse that explicitly names Mary as the mother of James, Joseph, Judas, Simon or any sisters from Mark 6:3.
  2. Explain why adelphos in Mark 6:3 must mean biological siblings, given the scripture uses adelphos for non-siblings as in Gen 14:14 in Lot-Abraham case, and 1 Chronicles 23:22 as cousins and in Matt 28:10, disciples. Show how your interpretation doesnt violate these biblical precedents.
  3. Address John 19:25 and Matt 27:56 which identify “Mary the wife of Clopas” as the mother of James and Joseph. Prove these are not the same James and Joseph from Mark 6:3, and that they are instead Mary’s biological sons.
  4. Reconcile Matt 1:25’s “until” with other biblical uses of heos that doesnt imply change afterward as in 2 Sam 6:23, Matt 28:20. Show why “until” in Matt 1:25 must mean Joseph amd Mary had relations later.
  5. Explain Psalms 69:8, a messianci prophecy applied to Jesus in John 2:17, which says “I am a stranger to my brothers, an alien to my mother’s sons.” If Mary had other sons, why does this prophecy not apply literally to Jesus’ relationship with them?
  6. Account for Luke 1:34, where Mary asks “How can this be, since I am a virgin?” Greek: “since I do not know a man”. If Mary intended to have normal marital relations with Joseph, why does her question imply a permanent commitment to virginity?
  7. Finally, show where Scripture explicitly states that Mary’s role as the mother of Messiah allows for other Children, given Ezekiel 44:2’s prophetic imagery of a gate through which only the Lord passes, remaining shut.

We’re all learners under the authority of Scripture, @Samuel_23, so let’s refrain from accusing others of eisegesis. This isn’t a battle of intellects, but a pursuit of truth under Christ.

Mary’s Motherhood in Scripture: Not Exclusively to Jesus
While it’s true that Scripture never directly calls Mary “the mother of James” or “the mother of Joses,” it just as clearly refers to Jesus’ “brothers” (ἀδελφοί) and “sisters” (ἀδελφαί) in multiple places — and these are not metaphorical. Matthew 13:55–56 records astonishment in Jesus’ hometown: “Is this not the carpenter’s son? Is not His mother called Mary, and His brothers (ἀδελφοί) James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And His sisters, are they not all with us?” The argument that “ἀδελφοί” means merely “cousins” does not hold lexically — the Greek language has the word for cousin (anepsios, cf. Colossians 4:10), and Matthew’s use here is familial, embedded in immediate biological relationships (father, mother, brothers, sisters), not tribal or clan-level affiliations.

  1. Luke 1 does not prove perpetual virginity, only virginal conception
    Luke 1:31–35 affirms Mary’s virginity before Christ’s birth, not after. The angel says she “will conceive” — future tense — and she responds, “How will this be, since I have not known a man?” (v. 34, ἐπεὶ ἄνδρα οὐ γινώσκω). This proves her virginity up to that point, not perpetually. After Jesus’ birth, Matthew 1:25 states that Joseph “knew her not until she had given birth to a son” (οὐκ ἐγίνωσκεν αὐτὴν ἕως οὗ), which strongly implies normal marital relations after the birth. The Greek phrase “ἕως οὗ” almost always implies a change afterward (cf. Genesis 8:7, 2 Samuel 6:23, Psalm 110:1). This verse alone demolishes the doctrine of perpetual virginity if one holds to grammatical and contextual honesty.

  2. Ezekiel 44:2 is typological eisegesis, not exegesis
    The appeal to Ezekiel 44:2 — “This gate shall remain shut; it shall not be opened, and no one shall enter by it, for the LORD, the God of Israel, has entered by it” — is a medieval Mariological allegory, not grounded in the context of Ezekiel. The chapter is describing the east gate of the temple, a literal architectural feature in the eschatological vision of a renewed temple. Nowhere in Ezekiel is there any indication that this refers to a woman or to a womb. This is theological typology retrofitted into the text. Moreover, if we apply the same logic, Jesus coming forth from Mary’s womb would contradict her being a permanently shut gate, He did come through it.

  3. Why would Scripture be silent on her having other children? It isn’t.
    The Gospels are not silent. As shown above, Matthew 13 and Mark 6 list Jesus’ siblings, some of whom go on to be prominent in the early Church (James and Jude). John 7:5 even tells us “not even His brothers were believing in Him” — a strange thing to say if they were merely cousins. Acts 1:14 describes “Mary the mother of Jesus, and His brothers” as present in the upper room. There is no need to invent spiritualized metaphors here — the straightforward reading fits perfectly.

  4. Early Church Fathers contradict perpetual virginity
    Before the Marian dogmas hardened, several pre-Nicene and Nicene-era writers acknowledged or assumed that Jesus had biological siblings:

Tertullian (c. 160–220 AD), writing in On the Flesh of Christ, says: “He was born of a virgin… although she was a wife… she had conceived in her virgin womb, and after delivery her virginity was no longer preserved.” Tertullian believed Mary had normal marital relations after Jesus’ birth and had other children.

Hegesippus (c. 2nd century), a Jewish-Christian chronicler, refers to the grandsons of Jude, “the Lord’s brother according to the flesh,” meaning literal family. Eusebius cites him in Ecclesiastical History 3.19–20.

Helvidius (late 4th century) openly argued against perpetual virginity, using the same biblical texts, especially Matthew 1:25 — and affirmed that the “brothers” of Jesus were his true brothers.

Jovinian (c. 390 AD) also rejected the idea that Mary remained a virgin. Jerome’s entire treatise Against Helvidius exists precisely because the doctrine was not universally accepted at that time.

Jerome’s defense (the idea of perpetual virginity) emerged in reaction to these critics, not from unanimous Apostolic tradition. His argument relied on speculative allegory, etymology, and weak lexical points, not Scriptural force.

  1. Practical Implication: Christ’s Incarnation, Not Mary’s Status, is the Focus
    Nowhere do the apostles teach or exalt Mary’s perpetual virginity as doctrinally relevant. The Incarnation is the focus — that God took on flesh through a virgin, fulfilling prophecy (Isaiah 7:14), entering real humanity, and redeeming us by His cross (Philippians 2:6–11). Mary’s role is honored, but it is Christ’s blood, not Mary’s womb, that atones. Her temporary virginity fulfills Messianic prophecy; her permanent virginity is theological adornment, not apostolic doctrine.

J.

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I’m always ready to learn, but when someone writes in a ‘funny’ way that borders on mockery, I tend to respond unfiltered and say exactly what’s on my mind.
Sorry for that

Ah, brother Samuel_23… welcome back from exams, and I do mean that sincerely. Now let’s sharpen the swords and let the Word speak for itself.

You’ve brought a full seven-layer defense of the Perpetual Virginity doctrine, and I respect the energy… but the exegesis? Not so much. Let’s work through it.

First, let’s settle this up front. No one’s arguing that adelphos always means biological brother. We both know the word has range. The question is… what does it mean in this context? Because just like you said, context determines meaning. And the context of Mark 6:3 isn’t mystical… it’s mundane. The townspeople aren’t theologizing… they’re gossiping. “Isn’t this the carpenter? Mary’s son? His brothers are here… and his sisters too.” They name the family. They point to the locals. It’s not spiritual kinship. It’s small-town shade.

Your claim that “they never call them Mary’s sons” is trying to smuggle in theology through silence. That line of logic would also say Joseph wasn’t Jesus’ father since He’s only called “Mary’s son” in that same verse. But we’re not about to toss out Joseph over one verse… so let’s not invent dogma out of what the text doesn’t say.

Now about Mary the wife of Clopas in John 19:25 and Matthew 27:56… that’s a whole different Mary. First-century Judea had more Marys than a Catholic bingo night. It’s the most common female name in the period. You’re tying James and Joseph to the wife of Clopas based on proximity, not proof. Scripture never says the James and Joseph of Mark 6:3 are from that Mary. That’s assumption dressed up in footnotes.

You dropped Psalm 69:8 like a trump card… but the verse doesn’t deny the existence of siblings. In fact, it confirms they exist. It says Jesus was estranged from His brothers and alienated from His mother’s sons. That’s not poetic for “He was an only child.” That’s prophecy pointing to the unbelief we see in John 7:5… “even His brothers did not believe in Him.” Fulfilled. No gymnastics required.

Matthew 1:25… ah yes, the “until” debate. You bring up Michal and Matthew 28. I hear you. But here’s the issue. “Until” doesn’t always imply a change… but it often does. That’s why Matthew used it. If his point was simply to highlight virgin birth, he could’ve stopped at “Joseph did not know her.” Period. But he adds “until she gave birth” for a reason. That reason matters. And by the way… your argument cuts both ways. If “until” never implies change, then Matthew 28:20 would mean Jesus is with us only until the end of the age. Which is… not the point you want to make. Context, remember?

Luke 1:34… Mary asks how this will happen “since I do not know a man.” That’s present tense, not a vow of lifelong abstinence. It’s not a declaration of perpetual virginity. It’s a question about timing. She’s betrothed, not clueless. She knows babies don’t come before weddings. The angel explains… and Mary doesn’t protest further. If she’d made a lifelong vow, she’d have brought it up.

Ezekiel 44:2… the gate metaphor? Brother, I love a good typology, but if that’s your closing argument, it’s built on allegorical smoke. That gate points to Christ’s exclusive entry into the temple… not Mary’s anatomy. Let’s not treat metaphors like microscopes.

Now your final challenge… find a verse that explicitly calls Mary the mother of James, Joseph, Judas, Simon. Here’s the thing. Scripture never calls her “mother of the apostles” either… and yet she raised the One who sent them. The Gospels aren’t writing family rosters… they’re focused on Jesus. But when the townsfolk say, “Isn’t this Mary’s son, and aren’t his brothers and his sisters with us?” you’d need a Greek decoder ring and a stack of commentaries to not take that at face value.

Tradition tries to protect Mary by putting a theological bubble wrap around her… but Scripture honors her as she is. Blessed among women… not boxed into a doctrine it never declares. Her perpetual virginity isn’t defended in the text. It’s imported into it.

She said, “Let it be to me according to your word.” And the Word became flesh. That’s her glory. Not some later claim that she never touched her husband.

You can build a doctrine from silence, allegory, and linguistic loopholes. Or you can take the plain meaning of Scripture at its word.

I’ll take the Word.

—Sincere Seeker. Stay grounded. Stay sharp. Stay in the Word.

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@SincereSeeker, I think that that Catholic doctrine about Mary is just another example of their reading into Scripture meanings that aren’t really there in order to justify a separate tradition that the Pope’s have wrongly added alongside of the Bible.

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Exactly, @Bruce_Leiter. When tradition starts driving the bus instead of Scripture, you end up with doctrines like perpetual virginity that need a magnifying glass, a Latin dictionary, and a papal decree to make them fit. God’s Word doesn’t need editing… it needs obeying.

—Sincere Seeker. Scripturally savage. Here for the Truth.

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