The bible is not Infallible

By infallible, I mean incapable of textual or factual error. If someone uses “infallible” merely to mean spiritually authoritative or trustworthy concerning salvation, that is a different claim.

We begin with a fact Christianity already accepts: human beings are fallible. That alone does not prove every human product contains error, but it means perfection cannot simply be assumed. It must be demonstrated.

The Bible was not physically written, copied, translated, punctuated, edited, or compiled into one volume by God. Scripture itself distinguishes direct divine writing from human writing: the tablets were written by “the finger of God” (Ex. 31:18; Deut. 9:10). The Bible as a whole never makes that claim about itself.

Instead, it repeatedly shows human authorship. Luke says many accounts already existed, that he investigated the matter, and that he chose to write an orderly account (Luke 1:1–4). John openly says he omitted many things Jesus did (John 20:30; 21:25). Paul admits uncertainty over whether he baptized anyone else besides those he remembered (1 Cor. 1:16). Tertius identifies himself as the one who physically wrote Romans (Rom. 16:22). Jeremiah dictated to Baruch; after the scroll was destroyed, it was rewritten and “many similar words were added” (Jer. 36:32). Proverbs 25:1 says sayings of Solomon were later copied by the men of Hezekiah.

That is not mechanical dictation. Revelation operated through human memory, vocabulary, research, selection, tone, genre, scribes, editors, and historical circumstance.

2 Peter 1:21 says men spoke from God while moved by the Holy Spirit. It does not say they ceased being human. 2 Timothy 3:16 says Scripture is God-breathed and useful for teaching, correction, and training. It does not say every manuscript, copy, translation, punctuation mark, or later canonical arrangement is incapable of error.

And actual textual error exists.

In 1 Samuel 13:1, Saul’s age has disappeared from the Hebrew textual tradition; translations must reconstruct or supply it. In 2 Kings 8:26 Ahaziah is 22, while 2 Chronicles 22:2 in the Masoretic Hebrew gives 42. Both cannot be his literal accession age. In 2 Samuel 24:13 the Hebrew tradition gives seven years of famine; 1 Chronicles 21:12 gives three.

That is not theology.

Those are conflicting transmitted numbers.

The New Testament manuscript tradition is equally decisive. Mark 16:9–20 is absent from the earliest complete Greek manuscripts of Mark. John 7:53–8:11 is absent from the earliest major witnesses and appears in different locations in later manuscripts. The explicitly Trinitarian wording of 1 John 5:7–8 found in the KJV is absent from the early Greek manuscript tradition.

Two different textual forms cannot simultaneously be the exact original wording.

Translation adds another human layer. Ancient Hebrew was written primarily as consonantal text, while later scribal traditions supplied vocalization. Genesis 47:31 can therefore be read “bed” or “staff” depending upon vocalization; Hebrews 11:21 follows the “staff” reading.

Punctuation is later still. The earliest Greek New Testament manuscripts did not contain our modern punctuation. Luke 23:43 can consequently be rendered:

“Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise,”

or:

“Truly I tell you today, you will be with me in paradise.”

The Greek words remain the same. The comma is an editorial decision, and moving it changes the temporal meaning.

The same humanity appears in writing style. Luke’s polished historical prose is not Paul’s argumentative Greek. Paul in Galatians does not sound like Paul in Philemon. John’s style is not Revelation’s. Inspiration did not erase personality, temperament, vocabulary, genre, or literary ability.

Nor did the Bible compile itself.

Scripture contains no inspired table of contents. The New Testament canon developed historically; the earliest surviving document listing exactly the present 27 New Testament books is Athanasius’s Festal Letter of AD 367. Christians still do not possess one universally identical Old Testament canon: Protestant, Catholic, and Orthodox Bibles differ.

So which manuscript tradition, canon, translation, vocalization, and punctuation system is the supposedly infallible one?

A common retreat is:

“The original autographs were infallible.”

But none of those original manuscripts survives.

That claim therefore cannot establish that the Bible presently in our hands is textually infallible. What we actually possess has passed through copying, variant readings, lost readings, translation decisions, punctuation, editing, and canon formation.

None of this proves Scripture is uninspired or worthless.

It proves something narrower:

Inspiration and infallibility are not the same thing.

God may inspire revelation without rendering every human stage of its production and transmission incapable of error.

A prophet can be guided by the Holy Spirit while writing in his own voice. A Gospel writer can choose what to include. A scribe can copy a number incorrectly. A translator can choose between legitimate readings. A church can recognize a canon without becoming infallible.

God is infallible.

Human authors, scribes, translators, editors, and canon-forming communities are not.

And we do not merely infer their fallibility—we can see its effects in the surviving textual evidence.

Therefore the Bible, as the written, copied, transmitted, translated, punctuated, and compiled text actually available to us, is not infallible.

Its authority does not require pretending that 22 and 42 are the same number; that lost readings were never lost; that disputed passages were always present; that modern commas existed in manuscripts where they did not; or that every Christian tradition received the same canon.

If God is truth, then acknowledging the truth about the Bible cannot be an attack upon God.

Why do you think it’s like that?

(Hint - there is no ‘correct’ answer to this question)

We are imperfect beings and imperfect beings can not make something perfect. Look through out our existence, there is nothing we ever made that is perfect.

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I recently read this somewhere. (@PeterC )

“If God desired absolute uniformity in every minor theological detail, He certainly could have written Scripture as a rigid, bulleted systematic theology textbook. Instead, He gave us a collection of narratives, poetry, prophecy, and letters spanning thousands of years.

From a biblical and theological perspective, there are several profound reasons why God might allow this, and crucial lessons it is meant to teach us. Historically, theologians have divided doctrines into categories often called “primary” or the core essentials of the Gospel, and “secondary” or “tertiary” or disputed matters.

On the essentials, the nature of God, the deity of Christ, salvation by grace through faith, Scripture is remarkably clear (perspicuous).

On peripheral issues, Scripture often leaves room for interpretation. This structure suggests God intentionally prioritized a unified focus on the Person of Jesus over a uniform agreement on every operational detail.“

And this:

@PeterC

“No one reads Scripture in a vacuum. We all bring our cultural backgrounds, language constraints, personal experiences, and historical contexts to the text. God chose to communicate through human language and history, meaning our finite minds are always attempting to grasp an infinite God. Differences in conclusions often reveal the vastness of God’s truth, which cannot be neatly captured by any single human system of thought.”

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I agree. The bible is never less valuable and essential just because its not infalliable. I still believe in the bible as much.

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If I had to pick one word, I would pick “Richness”.

The uncountable richness of God, expressed in His creation, perceived by us as His creation. Language is necessarily comprehensively imprecise because ideas cannot always be hemmed into a sentence.

Nice work on your OP. A provocative title catches the attention. Good work on the explanation. (IMHO)

Others might disagree, and that’s the point.

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Someone could ask the question “When did Donald Trump become president?”

One correct answer would be:

Donald Trump became president of the United States on January 20, 2017.

Another correct answer would be:

Donald Trump became president on January 20, 2025, for his second non-consecutive term as the 47th president.

And then one would have to go through all of his entire business and academic history. Maybe he became president of his senior class in high school in 1950, or president of the rotary in 1974, or whatever. I made those up. But all might be true.

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Friends, true disciples of Jesus

I agree with @Pater15 that, in his opinion, the title is provocative, and that kv100’s explanation is interesting, even compelling. But for my price of admission, the argument as it stands “tilts at windmills”; the argument defends the stated idea against an imaginary foe; “infallibility”.

Citing as one example, kv100 says:

i.e.

1 Samuel 13:1 (KJV)
Saul reigned one year; and when he had reigned two years over Israel,

1 Samuel 13:1 (NASB)
Saul was thirty years old when he began to reign, and he reigned forty two years over Israel.

בֶּן־שָׁנָה שָׁאוּל בְּמָלְכֹו וּשְׁתֵּי שָׁנִים מָלַךְ עַל־יִשְׂרָאֵל. (HEB)
“A son of a year Saul when he became king, and two years he reigned over Israel”

The fact that there are some translation difficulties, and hard-to-explain discrepancies is not disputed; minor and insignificant discrepancies that arise through the process of interlanguage translations, and the unfortunate unavailability of original documents are accepted as not losing faithfulness of the message or intent. The few hard-to-explain discrepancies become perniciously exaggerated when held out as evidence against the false claim of infallibility (IMHO).

Disciples of Jesus think of The Bible as “faithful” and “true”, “The Word of God” to mankind, “Divine Revelation”, essential to accurately remembering the manifest Holy Works of The Lord. The Word of God is “light”, “understanding”, revealing deep mysteries of The Divine otherwise unattainable. But, standing alone, in the dock of inquisition, the Word of God “speaks not a word” in His own defense (Matt, 27:12, Isa. 53:7).

Q: How is it that an amalgam manuscript, collected from ~40 faithful amanuenses, who recorded The Holy Spirit’s revelation to them over a period of ~1500 years, and whose original recordings have been lost, has miraculously, faithfully retained the original author’s (The Holy Spirit) necessary revelation, surviving millenia of oral tradition, multiple transcriptions, and a myriad of language translations? Hint: the answer is stated twice within the question.

A: The Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit brings Holy Understanding to the faithful student; disciples who yield in every language, and every age from multiple translations. This is God’s purpose. If He kept silent, even the rocks would cry out.

The sound of a “rushing mighty wind” filled the whole house where they were sitting. … everyone heard them speak in his own language. (Acts 2:2-6)

When we read The Word of God, with His indwelling Holy Spirit, we too hear Him speak in our own language today.

If this Holy manuscript is subjected to human criticism it will yield up the same kind of misdirect that the parables of Jesus did to those who had no “ears to hear”. That phenomenon is by design. To point to hard-to-explain passages and hold them up as evidence of Biblical fallibility is tantamount to pointing to a virus and suggesting it discredits any belief in the existence of a Supreme Creator. (I am not suggesting our “kv100” has done this. But some who live lives dependent on their own intellect have.) My point is, if this unique marvel is read only with the mind of man, it will be unsatisfactory, and unfulfilling; if this Revelation is criticized with worldly standards the critic will surely:

..keep on hearing, but do not understand;
Keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’ Isaiah (6:9-10)

The critic’s personal pride in their process will surely "Make their heart dull, and their ears heavy.” But God….

When the Word of God is approached with a pure heart, a humble prostration, and a yielded soul, there is every expectation that The Holy Spirit has already laid the fundamental groundwork, tilled the fallow soil to recieve the seed of Divine Revelation.

We only understand Divine Revelation as a fulfillment of the promised Work of The LORD. He alone brings understanding and light to a human mind.

“Unless the LORD builds the house, They labor in vain who build it;
Unless the LORD guards the city, The watchman stays awake in vain.” Psalm 127:1)

We call this book a “Holy Bible”, but Holy does not mean without typographical error, or free from insignificant discrepancies, it means perfect in accomplishing the intent for which it is given. The Word of God is not a simple book subject to “higher criticism” any more than The Son of God is a simple man to be slighted, marginalized, or contended with. The written Word, the Living Word, and the Eternal Word are one in purpose and one in their predetermined success.

“For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways,” says the LORD. "For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways, And My thoughts than your thoughts.”

“For as the rain comes down, and the snow from heaven, And do not return there, But water the earth, And make it bring forth and bud, That it may give seed to the sower And bread to the eater, So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth; It shall not return to Me void, But it shall accomplish what I please, And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it.” (Isaiah 55:8-11)

If a disciple calls The Bible “infallible”, the disciple simply means it will not “fail to prosper in the thing for which it is sent.”

These are only my highly-fallible thoughts.
KP

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Since God alone is perfect. Its an illogically impossibility for fallible humans to produce a perfect inerrent text through their own freewill. Expecting perfection from imperfection is were the reasoning actually fails.

This is an interesting point. I do think it highlights the trend that many Christians (especially Protestants) tend to elevate the Bible to a level with God himself. I think, ironically, even the Bible can become an idol. Jesus is the embodied Word of God, and he is infallible.

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@kv100

Yes, I think you are 100% correct here. I agree…

And

My question is (and I’m definitely not trying to harass or insult you),
who said it IS possible for fallible humans to produce a perfect inerrant text? Who said humans COULD produce something infallible “through their own freewill”. I agree they can’t, but who are we contending with?

KP

The Bible doesn’t lie. You might disagree with Paul when he said women shouldn’t speak in a church, but you know Paul said it.

If the goal was to maintain order in the church, why did the restriction only apply to women and not men?

Umm nonsensical question. How could it apply to both?

Please rephrase your question.

If you cant explain why the restriction only applies to one gender while claiming the goal is general order, there is no need to call the question nonsensical to hide the gap in logic.

There are two genders. The restriction applies to one gender. Leadership and teaching is restricted to one gender in the church. If it applied to both genders, there wouldn’t be any leaders or teachers at all.

That’s why I say that the question is nonsensical as written. We can’t tell what you’re asking, unless you’re trying to say that there shouldn’t be any leaders or teachers of either gender in the church.

In that case, you might agree that there would be a general decrease in order in the church.

I never asked or said anything about leaders. I asked why the restriction on silence in the church had to apply to one gender if the goal is to maintain order in the church. Stop pivoting to avoid the question.

There is no pivot. The question is still nonsensical. Now you’re saying that it would be more orderly if no one speaks in church?

Think it through brother - it’s a nonsense question.

You defining my question as nonsensical does not exempt you from answering it. I can ask you a ‘nonsensical’ question and you still be able to asnwer it. For example, Does a round triangle exist? you can say either yes or no. Now answer my question I asked you.

Okay, here is the question above. I will answer it.

The restriction only applies to women, and not to men and women equally, because if the restriction applied to women and men equally, then no one would be allowed to speak in church.

That would defeat the intent of having church.

If your intent was to ask why the restriction applies to women in general at all, you asked the wrong question.

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